Thursday, January 1, 2015

Financial Management (Chapter 1: Getting Started-Principles of Finance)

1.1   Finance: An Overview

1) Which of the following statements best represents what finance is about?
A) How political, social, and economic forces affect corporations
B) Maximizing profits
C) The study of how people and businesses make investment decisions and how to finance those decisions
D) Reducing risk

2) From a financial point of view, a company that decides to develop new product is making
A) a financing decision.
B) an investment decision.
C) a capital structure decision.
D) a cash flow decision.

3) Working capital management refers to
A) long-term financing decisions.
B) the management of cash flows.
C) investing in product development.
D) capital structure.


4) Finance managers need to interact constantly with
A) marketing managers.
B) accounting staff.
C) management information systems staff.
D) all of the above.

5) The personal decision to obtain a college degree in business is primarily a(n) ________ decision.
A) social 
B) investment
C) ethical
D) financing

6) The area of finance that deals with long-term investment decisions is known as
A) capital structure.
B) working capital management.
C) financial strategy.
D) capital budgeting.

7) Capital structure refers to the financing of long-term investments.
Answer:  TRUE

8) Business financial decisions are fundamentally different from personal financial decisions.
Answer:  FALSE

9) What are the three basic questions addressed by the study of investments?
Answer: 
1.  What investments should the firm undertake?
2.  How should the firm fund these investments?
3.  How can the firm best manage cash flows in its day-to-day operations?

1.2   Three Types of Business

1) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the sole proprietorship?
A) Limited liability
B) No time limit imposed on its existence
C) No legal requirements for starting the business
D) None of the above

2) What is the chief disadvantage of the sole proprietorship as a form of business organization when compared to the corporate form?
A) Sole proprietorships are subject to double taxation of profits.
B) The cost of formation.
C) Inadequate profit sharing.
D) Owners have unlimited liability.

3) Which of the following is NOT true for limited partnerships?
A) Limited partners can only manage the business.
B) One general partner must exist who has unlimited liability.
C) Only the name of general partners can appear in the name of the firm.
D) Limited partners may sell their interest in the company.

4) The true owners of the corporation are the
A) holders of debt issues of the firm.
B) preferred stockholders.
C) board of directors of the firm.
D) common stockholders.

5) In terms of organizational costs, which of the following sequences is generally correct, moving from lowest to highest cost?
A) General partnership, sole proprietorship, limited partnership, corporation
B) Sole proprietorship, general partnership, limited partnership, corporation
C) Corporation, limited partnership, general partnership, sole proprietorship
D) Sole proprietorship, general partnership, corporation, limited partnership


6) Assume that you are starting a business. Further assume that the business is expected to grow very quickly and a great deal of capital will be needed soon. What type of business organization would you choose?
A) Corporation
B) General Partnership
C) Sole proprietorship
D) Limited partnership

7) Which one of the following categories of owners enjoys limited liability?
A) General partners in a limited partnership or limited liability company
B) Shareholders (common stock) of a corporation
C) Sole proprietors
D) Both A and B

8) Which of the following is a characteristic of a limited partnership?
A) It allows one or more partners to have limited liability.
B) It requires one or more of the partners to be a general partner to whom the privilege of limited liability does not apply.
C) It prohibits the limited partners from participating in the management of the partnership.
D) All of the above.


9) Which of the following forms of organization blends elements of partnerships and corporations?
A) D.B.A.'s
B) Sole proprietorships
C) Limited liability companies (LLC's)
D) General partnership

10) Which of the following types of business forms is least risky to investors?
A) Sole proprietorship
B) Limited partnership
C) General partnership
D) A public corporation

11) Which forms of organization are free of initial legal requirements?
A) Sole proprietorship
B) General partnership
C) Corporation
D) Both A and B

12) For these types of organization, no distinction is made between business and personal assets.
A) Sole proprietorship
B) General partnership
C) Limited partnership
D) Both A and B

13) Which of the following is a significant disadvantage of a general partnership?
A) The cost of forming it is high.
B) Each partner is fully responsible for the liabilities incurred by the partnership.
C) There is a risk associated with the industry in which it operates.
D) Forming the business is very complex.

14) Which of the following forms of business organization is the dominant economic force in the United States?
A) The sole proprietorship
B) The general partnership
C) The limited partnership
D) The joint venture
E) The corporation

15) A limited partner is liable
A) for only his or her own share of the partnership's debts.
B) for his or her own share of the partnership's debts and contingently liable for the other partners shares.
C) only up to the amount invested by that partner.
D) for none of the partnership's debts.


16) A corporation is owned by
A) shareholders and partners.
B) the shareholders who hold the company's stock.
C) the Board of Directors.
D) its Chief Executive Officer.

17) The major sources of financing for corporations are
A) partners contributions.
B) exchanges between shareholders.
C) interest and dividends.
D) debt and equity.

18) The term stockholder is equivalent to
A) general partner.
B) creditor.
C) shareholder.
D) stakeholder.

19) The sole proprietorship is the same as the individual for liability purposes.
Answer:  TRUE


20) In a general partnership, all partners have unlimited liability for the actions of any one partner when that partner is conducting business for the firm.
Answer:  TRUE

21) There is no legal distinction made between the assets of the business and the personal assets of the owners in the limited partnership.
Answer:  FALSE

22) The owners of a corporation are liable for the corporation's obligations up to the amount of their investment.
Answer:  TRUE

23) General partners have unrestricted transferability of ownership, while limited partners must have the consent of all partners to transfer their ownership.
Answer:  FALSE

24) Ultimate control in a corporation is vested in the board of directors.
Answer:  FALSE


25) Owners must register and pay yearly fees to their State of residence when establishing a sole proprietorship.
Answer:  FALSE

26) Limited partners may actively manage the business.
Answer:  FALSE

27) The life of a corporation is not dependent upon the status of the investors.
Answer:  TRUE

28) A sole proprietorship is the most desirable business form in all circumstances.
Answer:  FALSE

29) In a sole proprietorship, the owner is personally responsible without limitation for the liabilities incurred.
Answer:  TRUE


30) In a limited partnership, at least one general partner must remain in the association; the privilege of limited liability still applies to this partner.
Answer:  FALSE

31) In a general partnership, each partner is liable for the partnership's obligations only up to a percentage of the obligation equal to that partner's percentage of ownership of the partnership.
Answer:  FALSE


1.3   The Goal of the Financial Manager

1) Maximization of shareholder wealth as a goal is superior to accounting profit maximization because
A) it considers the time value of the money.
B) following the shareholder wealth maximization goal will ensure high stock prices.
C) accounting profits are not the same as cash flows.
D) A and C.

2) Which of the following best describes the goal of the firm?
A) The maximization of the total market value of the firm's common stock
B) Profit maximization
C) Risk minimization
D) None of the above


3) Profit maximization does not adequately describe the goal of the firm because
A) profit maximization does not require the consideration of risk.
B) profit maximization ignores the timing of a project's return.
C) maximization of dividend payout ratio is a better description of the goal of the firm.
D) A and B.

4) Which of the following goals of the firm is equivalent to the maximization of shareholder wealth?
A) Profit maximization
B) Risk minimization
C) Maximization of the total market value of the firm's common stock
D) None of the above

5) If managers are making decisions to maximize shareholder wealth, then they are primarily concerned with making decisions that should
A) positively affect profits.
B) increase the market value of the firm's common stock.
C) either increase or have no effect on the value of the firm's common stock.
D) accomplish all of the above.


6) Profit maximization is not an adequate goal of the firm when making financial decisions because
A) it does not necessarily reflect shareholder wealth maximization.
B) it ignores the risk inherent in different projects that will generate the profits.
C) it ignores the timing of a project's returns.
D) all of the above are correct.

7) Which of the following goals is in the best long-term interest of stockholders?
A) Profit maximization
B) Risk minimization
C) Maximizing of the market value of the existing shareholders' common stock
D) Maximizing sales revenues

8) If managers do not pursue the goal of maximizing shareholder wealth
A) they concentrate on more important matters like growing market share.
B) they can focus more on social responsibilities.
C) they are likely to lose their jobs.
D) they can focus more on long-term profitability.


9) What does the agency problem refer to?
A) The conflict that exists between the board of directors and the employees of the firm.
B) The problem associated with financial managers and Internal Revenue agents.
C) The conflict that exists between stockbrokers and investors.
D) The problem that results from potential conflicts of interest between the manager of a business and the stockholders.

10) Managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner
A) because ethics violations will be punished by the law.
B) because a business must be trusted by investors, customer and the public if it is to succeed.
C) because business managers must answer to a higher authority.
D) because ethical behavior is its own justification.

11) In regard to the agency problem, ________ are the principal owners of a corporation.
A) shareholders
B) managers
C) employees
D) suppliers


12) Serious ethical violations by corporations such as Enron led to the passage of
A) the Dodd-Frank Act.
B) the Insider Trading Act of 1988.
C) the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
D) All of the above.

13) The goal of the firm should be the maximization of profit.
Answer:  FALSE

14) One of the problems associated with profit maximization is that it ignores the timing of a project's return.
Answer:  TRUE

15) The goal of profit maximization is equivalent to the goal of maximization of share value.
Answer:  FALSE


16) The goal of profit maximization ignores the timing of profit.
Answer:  TRUE

17) The goal of maximize shareholder wealth inevitably conflicts with socially responsible behavior on the part of corporation.

18) The Sarbane-Oxley Act addresses insider trading by members of Congress.
Answer:  FALSE

19) A reputation for unethical behavior can negatively affect the value of a company's stock.
Answer:  TRUE

20) The agency problem arises due to the separation of ownership and control in a corporation.
Answer:  TRUE


21) Briefly discuss the incentives for financial managers to conduct their business in an ethical manner.
Answer:  Extreme ethical lapses such as those evident in the Madoff Ponzi scheme may also break laws and result in fines or imprisonment.  In less extreme cases, deceptive accounting practices or sales techniques once exposed lead to a loss of trust.  Because individuals and firms are reluctant to do business with those they mistrust, a reputation for unethical behavior over the long run leads to adversarial relations with business partners, a loss of customers, and destruction of the firm's value.



1.4   The Four Basic Principles of Finance

1) Consider the following equally likely project outcomes:

                                                     Profit
                                                                   X             Y
Pessimistic prediction                             $      0     $500
Expected outcome                                     $  500    $500
Optimistic prediction                              $1000    $500

A) Investors will prefer project X because it potentially offers a higher profit.
B) Investors will reject both projects because the profit is too low.
C) Investors will prefer project Y because the expected return is the same as for project X but the outcome is certain.
D) Since Projects X and Y have the same expected outcomes of $500, investors will view them as identical in value.

2) Consider the timing of the profits of the following certain investment projects:

                                         Profit
                                 L                    S
Year 1                $       0            $ 3000
Year 2                $ 3000           $       0

A) Project S is preferred to Project L.
B) Project L is preferred to Project S.
C) Projects S and L are equally desirable.
D) A goal of profit maximization would favor Project S only.


3) In finance, we assume that investors are generally
A) neutral to risk.
B) averse to risk.
C) fond of risk.
D) none of the above.

4) Consider cash flows for Projects X and Y such as:

                                 Project X        Project Y
Year 1                        $3000             $      0
Year 2                        $      0              $3000

A rational person would prefer receiving cash flows sooner because
A) the money can be reinvested.
B) the money is nice to have around.
C) the investor may be tired of a particular investment.
D) the investor is indifferent to either proposal.

5) Which of the following should be considered when assessing the financial impact of business decisions?
A) The amount of projected earnings
B) The risk-return tradeoff
C) The timing of projected earnings; i.e., when they are expected to occur
D) All of the above


6) Which of the following is most likely to motivate executives to maximize shareholder wealth?
A) Tying bonuses to cost reductions and meeting budget goals
B) Offering them relatively high salaries
C) Tying annual bonuses to increases in annual profits
D) Compensating them with stock options that can only be exercised after five years

7) If one security has a greater risk than another security, how will investors respond?
A) They will require a lower rate of return for the investment that has greater risk.
B) They would be indifferent regarding their expectation of rates of return for either investment.
C) They will require a higher rate of return for the investment that has greater risk.
D) None of the above.

8) How could you compensate an investor for taking on a significant amount of risk?
A) Increase the expected rate of return
B) Raise more debt capital
C) Offer stock at a higher price
D) Increase sales


9) If an investor had a choice of receiving $1,000 today, or $1,000 in five years, which would the average investor prefer?
A) $1,000 in five years because they are not good at saving money.
B) $1,000 today because it will be worth more than $1,000 received in five years.
C) $1,000 in five years because it will be worth more than $1,000 received today.
D) Investors would be indifferent to when they would receive the $1,000.
E) None of the above.

10) Why do investors prefer receiving cash sooner rather than later, according to finance theory?
A) Incremental profits are greater than accounting profits.
B) Money received earlier can be reinvested and returns can be increased.
C) Tax considerations are important when investing.
D) Diversification leads to increased value.

11) Investors choose to invest in higher risk investments because these investments offer higher
A) expected returns.
B) inflation.
C) actual returns.
D) future consumption.


12) Foregoing the earning potential of a dollar today is referred to as the
A) time value of money.
B) opportunity cost concept.
C) risk/return tradeoff.
D) creation of wealth.

13) In measuring value, the focus should be on
A) cash flow.
B) accounting profits.
C) time value of money.
D) earnings per share.

14) Which of the following is a characteristic of an efficient market?
A) Small number of individuals
B) Opportunities exist for investors to profit from publicly available information.
C) Security prices reflect fair value of the firm.
D) Immediate response occurs for new public information.


15) Which of the following factors is most important in investment decisions?
A) The change in earnings before taxes.
B) The change in gross sales revenue.
C) The change in net income.
D) The change in after-tax cash flow.

16) Investors prefer $1 today versus $1 in the future due to
A) time value of money.
B) response to incentives.
C) the need for immediate gratification.
D) A and B.

17) The price of Netflix stock dropped sharply after customers responded negatively to a change in pricing policies.  The change in stock price illustrates which principle?
A) Market prices reflect information.
B) Individuals respond to incentives.
C) Cash flows are the source of value.
D) The time-value of money.


18) For the risk-return principle implies that the more risky a given course of action, the higher the expected return must be.
Answer:  TRUE

19) The financial manager should examine available risk-return trade-offs and make his decision based upon the greatest expected return.
Answer:  FALSE

20) Only a few financial decisions involve some sort of risk-return tradeoff.
Answer:  FALSE

21) In efficient markets, price adjustments to new information are gradual.
Answer:  FALSE

22) Rewarding executives for increasing quarterly earnings will motivate them to act in the long-term best interests of shareholders.
Answer:  FALSE

23) In an efficient market, prices will quickly adjust to new information.
Answer:  TRUE

24) Briefly discuss why financial decision makers must focus on incremental cash flows when evaluating new projects.
Answer:  Incremental cash flows describe the total cash effect on the company, looking at the difference between total cash flow to the company with the cash flow, and without the cash flow. The company can then value these cash flows and see if the company is worth more with the project or without the project.

25) Discuss the risk/return tradeoff and how it relates to finance.
Answer:  As people are risk averse, they need a higher return as the risk gets higher. This means that investors will need a higher return on bonds that they do not consider to be as safe as other bonds, and they will need a higher return on stock when the company in question's stock seems to be riskier than the stock of other companies.

26) Why do you think many companies compensate executives with options based on long-term increases in the value of the company's stock?
Answer:  Tying executive compensation to long-term increases in the stock price makes sense because they are supposed to be working to maximize shareholder wealth.  Stock-based compensation plans imply that decisions made to benefit shareholders will also benefit themselves.

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